I talked to the head of the western region VCFS and he said the intention is 9 remaining scheduled payments. If the 10th to last payment is made, the system will update in a week or so to show the customer qualifies for the 9 month pull ahead roughly 9 months and 3 weeks ahead of maturity.
Based on your logic, there is only ONE DAY that a customer would qualify for the 9 month pull ahead? Does that make sense? Why do you insist on interpreting things your way and insist everybody else is wrong?
Are we still on for the dunce cap avatar on this bet we have?