Question on the 1% rule

Since I’ve been reading here in the posts…I get that there is a general rule of thumb that a lease that is 1% of the price of the car for a monthly payment is a decent deal. My question is that number with everything rolled in(taxes,DMV fees,acq. fees,+ the net price of the car divided by 100 or just the net price of the car? I.e. $36000 car…$360 mo payment for everything is good or $36000 car + $4000 addl (taxes, etc) = 40,000 total so $400 total would be a good payment on a $36000 car. Again, was just looking for a little further clarification on this.

The 1% rule is in the eye of the beholder, more so than beauty, even.

Make it what you will.

:bat:

There is no mutual agreed upon answer since taxes, car models, and many factors come into the lease.

In general it’s $0 due at signing.

If you absolutely love the car and it’s not competitive leasing then basic drive offs due at signing (still shouldn’t really be over $1k).

Hope this thread gets locked up by a mod soon though.

Sooo many threads on this topic already. It’s a made up thing, don’t get too attached to it or even assume every car is attainable in 1% realm. A couple threads where it is discussed, all found with search term ‘1% rule’

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