Question on the 1% rule

Since I’ve been reading here in the posts…I get that there is a general rule of thumb that a lease that is 1% of the price of the car for a monthly payment is a decent deal. My question is that number with everything rolled in(taxes,DMV fees,acq. fees,+ the net price of the car divided by 100 or just the net price of the car? I.e. $36000 car…$360 mo payment for everything is good or $36000 car + $4000 addl (taxes, etc) = 40,000 total so $400 total would be a good payment on a $36000 car. Again, was just looking for a little further clarification on this.

The 1% rule is in the eye of the beholder, more so than beauty, even.

Make it what you will.


There is no mutual agreed upon answer since taxes, car models, and many factors come into the lease.

In general it’s $0 due at signing.

If you absolutely love the car and it’s not competitive leasing then basic drive offs due at signing (still shouldn’t really be over $1k).

Hope this thread gets locked up by a mod soon though.

Sooo many threads on this topic already. It’s a made up thing, don’t get too attached to it or even assume every car is attainable in 1% realm. A couple threads where it is discussed, all found with search term ‘1% rule’

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