I need some clarification on this:
Let’s say I’m paying $2,000 due at signing when taking delivery of a car. Is there a difference in whether those $2k due at signing is applied as a cap cost reduction versus being applied toward inceptions?
Wouldn’t it essentially be the same thing? Let’s say inceptions are rolled into the cap cost and the $2,000 due at signing would obviously reduce that cap cost.
Would calculating the monthly payment be any different if the due at signing is going toward inceptions and vice versa? Hope I’m explaining myself correctly. Forgive my ignorance.
Just want to know if it makes a difference on how the deal is structured.