Can someone confirm my logic regarding payments and residuals?

Let’s say we have a car with trim A at 25000 and a higher trim B at 27000. Is it ever the case where the residuals have an equal difference from original value in 3 years? So in this example, A will be 15000 and B will be 17000.

And if this situation does happen, am I correct in assuming that the lease will cost the same for both? Or is it more complicated than just looking at the difference between residual and purchase price?

That can be the case, but payments aren’t based only on the depreciation. IF the MF is the same, you’d be paying more in rent charge.

Sometimes, the more expensive trim is cheaper to lease.

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Can you explain that? Does MF apply on purchase price or the leased value?

Rent charge = MF*(cap cost+residual value)

Read the Leasing 101 and How to calculate leasing payment articles.