Let’s say we have a car with trim A at 25000 and a higher trim B at 27000. Is it ever the case where the residuals have an equal difference from original value in 3 years? So in this example, A will be 15000 and B will be 17000.
And if this situation does happen, am I correct in assuming that the lease will cost the same for both? Or is it more complicated than just looking at the difference between residual and purchase price?